Interview Questions for Mechanical QA/QC Engineer and Third Party Inspector Jobs

Q1. How does the presence of molybdenum in SS316 affect its corrosion resistance compared to SS304?

1. Increases resistance to pitting and crevice corrosion
2. Enhances hardness and wear resistance
3. Improves thermal conductivity
4. Reduces ductility and toughness

Answer: 1. Increases resistance to pitting and crevice corrosion

(Explanation: The addition of molybdenum in stainless steel grade 316 (SS316) enhances its corrosion resistance compared to SS304. Molybdenum improves the alloy’s resistance to various forms of corrosion, including pitting and crevice corrosion, making SS316 more suitable for harsh environments such as marine and chemical processing applications. www.weldingandndt.com)

Q2. Why is SS316 commonly used in marine applications?

1. Due to its lightweight properties
2. For its high-temperature strength
3. Because of its excellent corrosion resistance in seawater
4. For its magnetic properties

Answer: 3. Because of its excellent corrosion resistance in seawater

(Explanation: In marine environments, the composition of stainless steel plays a crucial role in determining its corrosion resistance. Stainless steel grade 304, while generally resistant to environmental damage, including intergranular corrosion, is not recommended for prolonged exposure to seawater due to its susceptibility to chloride-induced corrosion. (www.weldingandndt.com) The molecular composition of 304 stainless steel provides protection against various environmental factors, with chromium enhancing its resistance in oxidizing environments and nickel protecting it from organic acids. However, the high chloride content in seawater makes SS304 vulnerable to corrosion in such conditions. For marine applications where resistance to chloride-induced corrosion is paramount, SS316 stainless steel is preferred due to the addition of 2% molybdenum. This extra element significantly enhances the material’s effectiveness in marine environments by improving its resistance to pitting and crevice corrosion caused by chloride exposure.)

Q3. What is the primary advantage of using SS304L over SS304 in corrosive environments? www.weldingandndt.com

1. Higher strength
2. Improved ductility
3. Enhanced resistance to intergranular corrosion
4. Better thermal conductivity

Answer: 3. Enhanced resistance to intergranular corrosion

(Explanation: SS304L offers improved resistance to intergranular corrosion compared to SS304 due to its lower carbon content, which reduces the formation of chromium carbides along grain boundaries. This enhanced resistance makes SS304L a preferred choice in corrosive environments where intergranular corrosion is a concern, regardless of temperature conditions. www.weldingandndt.com)

Q4. What role does nitrogen play in enhancing the properties of duplex stainless steels like SAF 2205?

1. Increases hardness and strength
2. Improves weldability and toughness
3. Enhances resistance to chloride stress corrosion cracking
4. Reduces the risk of sensitization

Answer: 3. Enhances resistance to chloride stress corrosion cracking

(Explanation: Nitrogen plays a crucial role in enhancing the properties of duplex stainless steels, such as SAF 2205. Duplex stainless steels are characterized by their balanced composition of austenitic and ferritic phases, which provide a combination of strength and corrosion resistance. Nitrogen is added to these steels to improve their resistance to chloride stress corrosion cracking (CSCC). www.weldingandndt.com

CSCC is a type of corrosion that occurs when a material is subjected to both tensile stress and a corrosive environment containing chlorides. The addition of nitrogen to duplex stainless steels helps to increase the pitting resistance equivalent number (PREN), which is a measure of a material’s resistance to pitting and crevice corrosion. This enhanced resistance to CSCC makes duplex stainless steels like SAF 2205 more suitable for applications where both strength and corrosion resistance are essential.www.weldingandndt.com)

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Q5. In what applications is Inconel 625, a nickel-based superalloy, commonly used? www.weldingandndt.com

1. High-temperature aerospace components
2. Food processing equipment
3. Structural welding in buildings
4. Marine applications

Answer: 1. High-temperature aerospace components

(Explanation: Inconel 625 is a nickel-based superalloy that is highly resistant to corrosion and oxidation, making it an excellent choice for high-temperature applications. It is commonly used in aerospace components, such as jet engines, where it is exposed to extreme temperatures and corrosive environments. Inconel 625’s high strength and resistance to thermal degradation make it ideal for these applications, as it can maintain its mechanical properties under high-temperature conditions. Additionally, its resistance to pitting and crevice corrosion makes it suitable for marine environments, where seawater can cause corrosion in other materials. Overall, Inconel 625 is a versatile material that can withstand harsh conditions, making it a popular choice for a variety of high-performance applications.www.weldingandndt.com)

Q6. How does the addition of chromium enhance the corrosion resistance of stainless steels?

1. Increases hardness
2. Forms a passive oxide layer
3. Improves thermal conductivity
4. Enhances ductility

Answer: 2. Forms a passive oxide layer

(Explanation: Chromium is a key element in the composition of stainless steels, and it plays a crucial role in enhancing their corrosion resistance. When chromium is present in sufficient quantities (usually above 10.5%), it forms a passive oxide layer on the surface of the material. This oxide layer acts as a protective barrier, preventing the underlying metal from coming into direct contact with the corrosive environment. As a result, the material is less susceptible to corrosion, making it suitable for applications where resistance to environmental degradation is essential. www.weldingandndt.com)

Q7. What is the primary advantage of using titanium in aerospace applications?

1. High thermal conductivity
2. Low density
3. Corrosion resistance
4. Electrical conductivity

Answer: 2. Low density

(Explanation: Titanium is widely used in aerospace applications due to its low density compared to other metals. Its low density allows for the design of lighter components, which can significantly reduce the overall weight of an aircraft. This weight reduction leads to increased fuel efficiency, reduced operating costs, and improved performance. Additionally, titanium’s high strength-to-weight ratio, excellent corrosion resistance, and good fatigue properties make it an ideal material for aerospace applications. www.weldingandndt.com)

Q8. What role does molybdenum play in improving the corrosion resistance of stainless steels?

1. Enhances pitting resistance
2. Increases electrical conductivity
3. Reduces ductility
4. Improves thermal expansion properties

Answer: 1. Enhances pitting resistance

(Explanation: Molybdenum is an important alloying element in many stainless steels, and it plays a significant role in improving the material’s resistance to pitting corrosion. Pitting corrosion is a type of localized corrosion that occurs in specific areas of a material, often due to the presence of chloride ions. (www.weldingandndt.com) Molybdenum helps to increase the pitting resistance equivalent number (PREN) of a stainless steel, which is a measure of the material’s resistance to pitting corrosion. By increasing the PREN, molybdenum helps to make the material more resistant to pitting corrosion, making it more suitable for applications where corrosion resistance is essential.)

Q9. Which coating method provides the highest level of corrosion protection for steel structures exposed to harsh environments?

1. Powder coating
2. Thermal spray coating
3. Anodizing
4. Galvanizing

Answer: 4. Galvanizing

(Explanation: Galvanizing is a coating method that offers exceptional corrosion protection for steel structures exposed to harsh environments. In galvanizing, steel components are coated with a layer of zinc through a hot-dip process or electroplating. The zinc coating acts as a sacrificial anode, providing cathodic protection to the underlying steel by corroding preferentially. (www.weldingandndt.com) This sacrificial protection effectively shields the steel from corrosion caused by exposure to moisture, chemicals, and other environmental factors. Galvanized coatings are known for their durability, longevity, and superior resistance to rust and corrosion, making them ideal for applications where extended protection against harsh conditions is essential.)

Q10. Which of the following surface preparation methods is most effective for removing heavy rust and scale from metal surfaces?

1. Solvent cleaning
2. Power tool cleaning
3. Abrasive blasting
4. Pickling

Answer: 3. Abrasive blasting

(Explanation: Abrasive blasting is a highly efficient method used to clean metal surfaces by forcibly propelling abrasive materials against them. When heavy rust and scale are present, abrasive blasting is particularly effective because it can dislodge and remove these stubborn contaminants, leaving behind a clean surface. During the process, abrasive media, such as sand, grit, or steel shot, is propelled at high velocity using compressed air or water. The impact of these abrasive particles on the surface effectively breaks down rust, scale, old paint, and other surface contaminants, preparing the metal for coating or painting. Abrasive blasting is widely used in industries such as construction, automotive, marine, and aerospace for its ability to achieve thorough surface cleaning and preparation.)

Q10. In painting and coating applications, what is the purpose of a primer?

1. To provide colour
2. To enhance gloss
3. To promote adhesion
4. To provide weather resistance

Answer: 3. To promote adhesion

(Explanation: A primer serves as a crucial preparatory layer in painting and coating applications, primarily designed to promote adhesion between the substrate (the surface being painted or coated) and the subsequent layers of paint or coating. Adhesion is essential for ensuring the longevity and durability of the coating system. Without proper adhesion, the paint or coating may peel, flake, or blister over time, compromising the protective properties of the coating. Primers typically contain adhesion-promoting agents that form a strong bond with both the substrate and the subsequent paint or coating layers. Additionally, primers may also provide corrosion resistance, filling of surface imperfections, and enhanced durability, depending on the specific formulation and intended application.)

Q11. In the context of raw materials for coatings, what is the purpose of a pigment?

1. To provide colour
2. To improve adhesion
3. To enhance corrosion resistance
4. To increase viscosity

Answer: 1. To provide colour

(Explanation: Pigments are finely ground solid particles added to coatings to impart colour, opacity, and other aesthetic properties. In the context of coatings, pigments serve primarily to provide colour, allowing manufacturers to achieve a wide range of hues and shades to meet diverse aesthetic requirements. Pigments come in various forms, including inorganic minerals, synthetic compounds, and organic dyes, each offering specific color characteristics and performance properties. Along with coloration, pigments may also contribute to opacity, hiding power (the ability to conceal the substrate), UV resistance, and weatherability of the coating. However, their primary function remains the provision of coloration, making pigments a fundamental component of coating formulations across industries such as automotive, architectural, and industrial coatings. www.weldingandndt.com)

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Q12. During dimension inspection of a manufactured component, what is the tolerance zone?

1. The range of acceptable dimensions
2. It is a narrow zone between production and manufacturing.
3. The area where measurements are taken
4. The minimum acceptable surface finish

Answer: 1. The range of acceptable dimensions

(Explanation: In the context of dimension inspection, the tolerance zone refers to the acceptable range of dimensions specified for a manufactured component. It defines the permissible variation from the nominal or target dimension within which the component is considered acceptable for use. The tolerance zone includes both positive and negative deviations from the nominal dimension, allowing for variations in size and geometry that may occur during the manufacturing process. The dimensions of manufactured components are typically subject to dimensional tolerances, which are specified in engineering drawings or product specifications. These tolerances establish the allowable limits for dimensional variation to ensure proper fit, functionality, and interchangeability of parts in assemblies or systems. Dimensional inspection involves measuring the actual dimensions of a component and comparing them to the specified tolerances to verify compliance with quality standards and requirements.)

Q13. Which non-destructive testing (NDT) method is best suited for detecting surface cracks in metal components?

1. Ultrasonic testing
2. PAUT & TOFD
3. Liquid penetrant testing
4. Radiographic testing

Answer: 3. Liquid penetrant testing

(Explanation: Liquid penetrant testing, also known as dye penetrant testing, is a widely used non-destructive testing method for detecting surface-breaking defects, including cracks, in metal components. This method relies on the capillary action of a liquid penetrant to seep into surface discontinuities. First, a low-viscosity liquid penetrant is applied to the surface of the component, allowing it to infiltrate any surface cracks or voids through capillary action. After a specified dwell time, excess penetrant is removed from the surface, and a developer (typically a white, absorbent powder) is applied. The developer draws the penetrant out of the defects, causing them to become visible against the contrasting background. Liquid penetrant testing is highly sensitive and capable of detecting very fine cracks and defects on the surface of the material, making it an essential tool for quality control and inspection in various industries, including aerospace, automotive, and manufacturing.)

Q14. What is the purpose of a “Quality Hold Point” in construction projects and quality assurance plans (QAP)? www.weldingandndt.com

1. To mark the completion of a project phase
2. To obtain approval before proceeding to the next activity
3. To schedule inspections at random intervals
4. To document project progress for reporting purposes

Answer: 2. To obtain approval before proceeding to the next activity

(Explanation: A Quality Hold Point refers to a specific juncture in a project or process where the Contractor must obtain approval or a notice of no objection from the Engineer or Employer’s Representative before proceeding with the next activity. This ensures that critical quality control measures, such as inspections or testing, are completed and approved before advancing to the next phase of the project. (www.weldingandndt.com) The Quality Hold Point acts as a checkpoint to verify that the work meets specified quality standards and requirements, helping to prevent defects, errors, or non-compliance issues from progressing further in the project timeline. It ensures that necessary approvals are in place before crucial activities are undertaken, enhancing overall quality assurance and adherence to project specifications.)

Q15. What is the key difference between a Hold Point and a Witness Point in quality assurance and inspection processes?

1. A Hold Point requires mandatory verification before work can proceed, while a Witness Point involves optional inspection. (www.weldingandndt.com)
2. A Hold Point involves the review of methods or processes by an engineer, while a Witness Point requires approval from the municipality inspector.
3. A Hold Point signifies completion of a project phase, while a Witness Point marks the beginning of an activity. (www.weldingandndt.com)
4. A Hold Point necessitates approval by the engineer or consultant before work can continue, while a Witness Point allows activities to proceed without immediate approval.

Answer: 1. A Hold Point requires mandatory verification before work can proceed, while a Witness Point involves optional inspection.

(Explanation: In QAP, Hold Points and Witness Points serve as critical checkpoints to ensure that work adheres to specified standards and requirements. Hold Points represent stages within a process where work must halt until certain criteria are met and mandatory verification is completed. At these junctures, designated personnel, often engineers or quality assurance professionals, must thoroughly inspect, test, or review documentation to ensure that the work meets the necessary standards and specifications. Only upon fulfilment of the Hold Point requirements and obtaining approval can work proceed to the subsequent phase or activity. www.weldingandndt.com

In contrast, Witness Points also serve as checkpoints in the process, but they involve optional inspection or observation. While activities can progress at Witness Points without mandatory verification or approval, stakeholders such as inspectors, engineers, or clients have the option to observe the activities, perform inspections, or witness critical processes if they choose to do so. While their presence at Witness Points can provide additional assurance and oversight, their approval or verification is not required for work to continue.

The fundamental difference between Hold Points and Witness Points lies in the level of mandatory verification necessary before work can proceed. Hold Points necessitate mandatory verification and approval, ensuring that specific criteria are met before progressing to the next stage. On the other hand, Witness Points allow activities to proceed without immediate verification, but stakeholders have the option to observe or inspect if desired, providing an additional layer of oversight without halting progress.

In summary, (www.weldingandndt.com) Hold Points act as mandatory checkpoints where work must stop until verification and approval are obtained, ensuring compliance with standards, while Witness Points offer optional inspection opportunities, allowing activities to continue without immediate verification but providing stakeholders with the option to observe or inspect if they choose to do so, enhancing overall quality assurance and oversight within the process.

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Q16. What is the primary distinction between a Quality Assurance Plan (QAP), an Inspection and Test Plan (ITP), and a Quality Control Plan (QCP) in construction and quality management processes? www.weldingandndt.com

1. A QAP outlines quality assurance procedures, an ITP focuses on inspection and testing protocols, while a QCP details quality control measures. www.weldingandndt.com
2. A QAP is focused on project specifications, an ITP details testing procedures, and a QCP ensures compliance with regulations.
3. A QAP defines quality objectives, an ITP specifies inspection points, and a QCP monitors project progress.
4. A QAP involves quality audits, an ITP includes quality checks, and a QCP manages quality documentation.

Answer: 1. A QAP outlines quality assurance procedures, an ITP focuses on inspection and testing protocols, while a QCP details quality control measures.

(Explanation: In construction and quality management processes, a Quality Assurance Plan (QAP) serves as the overarching document that outlines how to manage and ensure the best possible quality for the final product or service. It focuses on setting quality assurance procedures and standards to meet customer requirements and business objectives. On the other hand, an Inspection and Test Plan (ITP) is a detailed document that specifies when and where inspections and tests will be conducted during the project to verify compliance with standards. It provides a structured approach to monitoring quality at specific checkpoints. In contrast, a Quality Control Plan (QCP) is dedicated to detailing how quality will be monitored and controlled during work execution, emphasizing ongoing tracking, inspection, and adjustments to maintain quality standards throughout the project. The QCP focuses on managing quality in real-time to ensure that set standards are met consistently. www.weldingandndt.com

In simpler terms, a Quality Assurance Plan (QAP) guides us on the steps needed to ensure work is done correctly from the beginning. An Inspection and Test Plan (ITP) specifies when and where to inspect and test work at different stages. On the other hand, a Quality Control Plan (QCP) details how we will keep track of quality as work progresses, making sure that standards are met and maintained throughout the project. The QCP involves ongoing monitoring and adjustments to ensure that quality remains consistent and meets the required standards.)

Q17. In ultrasonic testing, what is the primary difference between an angle probe and a normal probe?

1. Angle probes are used for surface-breaking defects, while normal probes are for subsurface defects.
2. Angle probes are designed for oblique inspections at specific angles, while normal probes emit waves perpendicular to the surface.www.weldingandndt.com
3. Angle probes are suitable for high-frequency testing, while normal probes are better for low-frequency testing.
4. Angle probes require contact coupling, while normal probes can be used for immersion testing.

Answer: 2. Angle probes are designed for oblique inspections at specific angles, while normal probes emit waves perpendicular to the surface.

(Explanation: Angle probes in ultrasonic testing are specialized for oblique inspections at predetermined angles, such as 30°, 45° or 60°, allowing for effective examination of welds and other components. These probes are tailored for angled beam transmission to detect flaws in specific orientations. In contrast, normal probes emit ultrasonic waves perpendicular to the surface being tested, enabling direct and straightforward inspections without the need for angled beam adjustments. This distinction highlights the primary difference between angle probes, which are angled for specific inspections, and normal probes, which emit waves straight into the material for general surface testing.)

Q18. Which of the following activities are typically involved in the inspection of raw materials before they are used in manufacturing processes?www.weldingandndt.com

1. Visual inspection for defects
2. Chemical analysis for composition
3. Dimensional measurement for accuracy
4. Mechanical testing for strength properties
5. All of the above

Choose the correct combination of activities that are commonly part of raw material inspection:

Answer: 5. All of the above

(Explanation: Raw material inspection involves a comprehensive approach to ensure the quality and suitability of materials for manufacturing processes.

Visual inspection is essential for detecting any visible defects like surface imperfections, damage, or contamination.

Chemical analysis is conducted to determine the composition and purity of the raw materials, ensuring they meet required specifications.

Dimensional measurement is performed to verify the accuracy and consistency of the material’s size and shape.

Mechanical testing assesses the strength properties of the raw materials to ensure they meet the necessary mechanical requirements for the intended application.

By combining these activities, manufacturers can thoroughly evaluate raw materials to maintain product quality and performance standards.)

Q19. In the context of engineering and construction, what accurately describes the relationship between codes and standards?

1. Codes are legally enforceable regulations, while standards can become legally enforceable when adopted by regulatory authorities.
2. Codes and standards are interchangeable terms used to define industry best practices.
3. Codes focus on materials, while standards focus on construction methods.
4. Standards are specific to local regulations, while codes are international in scope.

Answer: 1. Codes are legally enforceable regulations, while standards can become legally enforceable when adopted by regulatory authorities.

(Explanation: Codes are legally enforceable regulations established by governmental authorities. They serve as mandatory guidelines governing various aspects of design, construction, and safety within the industry. (www.weldingandndt.com) Compliance with codes is obligatory, and failing to adhere to them can result in legal consequences. On the other hand, standards serve as guidelines developed through consensus among industry professionals, regulatory bodies, and stakeholders. While initially, standards may not be legally required, they can become legally enforceable when adopted by regulatory authorities. This adoption process transforms certain standards into legally binding regulations, making adherence mandatory rather than optional. For instance, standards developed by organizations like ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) might be recognized and adopted by governmental bodies, thereby becoming mandatory requirements in certain jurisdictions. Therefore, the correct option (1) accurately describes the relationship between codes and standards, emphasizing the distinction between legally enforceable regulations (codes) and standards, which can attain legal status when adopted by regulatory authorities.)

Q20. Which of the following steel grades is commonly used for structural applications in construction?

1. AISI 304
2. ASTM A36
3. AISI 4140
4. ASTM A193

Answer: 2. ASTM A36

(Explanation: ASTM A36 is a widely used grade of structural steel in construction. It has excellent weldability and is suitable for a variety of structural applications, including buildings, bridges, and machinery. AISI 304 is a stainless steel grade commonly used in applications requiring corrosion resistance, while AISI 4140 is a high-strength alloy steel often used in engineering applications. ASTM A193 specifies alloy steel and stainless steel bolting materials for high-temperature or high-pressure service, not typically used for structural purposes. To learn more about SA36 steel, Please click here)

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Q21. Which steel grade is specifically designed for use in extreme temperature environments, such as cryogenic applications?

1. AISI 316
2. ASTM A516
3. AISI 1018
4. ASTM A242

Answer: 2. ASTM A516

(Explanation: ASTM A516 is a steel grade designed for pressure vessel applications, particularly for moderate and lower temperature service. (www.weldingandndt.com) However, certain grades of ASTM A516, such as A516 Grade 70, are also suitable for cryogenic applications due to their excellent low-temperature toughness. AISI 316 is a stainless steel grade known for its corrosion resistance and is not specifically designed for cryogenic temperatures. AISI 1018 is a low carbon steel typically used in general engineering applications. ASTM A242 is a high-strength low-alloy structural steel used in building construction and other applications, but it is not specifically designed for extreme temperature environments like cryogenic conditions.)

Q22. Which of the following electrodes is most suitable for welding stainless steel to mild steel?

1. E7018
2. E6013
3. E309
4. E309L
5. Both 3 and 4

Answer: 5. Both 3 and 4

(Explanation: E309 is a filler metal used for welding stainless steel to mild steel. It has a higher ferrite content that can minimize weld dilution and prevent weld cracking. (www.weldingandndt.com)

E309L is a low-carbon version of E309 and is also used for welding stainless steel to mild steel. It has a lower carbon content and a higher silicon content than E309, making it more suitable for applications that have a risk of intergranular corrosion cracking. (www.weldingandndt.com)

Therefore, the correct answer is both E309 and E309L. Both electrodes are suitable for welding stainless steel to mild steel, but E309L is preferred for applications that have a risk of intergranular corrosion cracking.)

Q23. A welder deposited 10 thick weld during the performance qualification test (WQT). Up to what maximum thickness of weld metal is the welder qualified to weld as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. 8 mm
2. 12 mm
3. 15 mm
4. 20 mm

Answer: 4. 20 mm

(Explanation: As per Table QW-452.1(b) – ASME Section IX, Thickness of Weld Metal Qualified is “2t”

Where “t ” is thickness of the deposited weld metal in the coupon during the welder qualification (performance qualification) test. Hence, if the welder has deposited 10 mm thick weld during the test, he/she can weld upto a thickness of 20 mm (2t = 2X10 mm = 20 mm). (www.weldingandndt.com)

If a welder deposits weld metal of thickness 13 mm or more (with a minimum of three layers) then he/she qualifies for an unlimited thickness, but the maximum thickness which the welder can weld shall not be more than that specified in the WPS range. (www.weldingandndt.com)

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Q24. A welder is qualified in the 3G position. In what welding positions can he perform welding, specifically for groove joints of plates as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. All Positions
2. Flat & Vertical
3. Flat, Vertical & Horizontal
4. Vertical Only

Answer: 2. Flat and Vertical

(Explanation: As per table QW-461.9 of ASME Section IX, A welder qualified with 3G position can weld flat and vertical position only in groove joints of plates.)

Q25. Which preheat temperature would be considered qualified, if a SMAW procedure qualification specifies a minimum preheat temperature of 120°C, but the PQR test coupon was welded with a minimum preheat temperature of 110°C, and all other PQR tests passed as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. 120°C
2. 110°C
3. 250°C
4. 160°C

Answer: 1. 120°C

(Explanation: As per Table QW 253, Paragraph 406.1: A decrease of more than 100°F (55°C) in the preheat temperature qualified will be considered as an essential variable.

It means, QW 406.1 allows the preheat temperature listed in the WPS to be decreased by up to 100°F (55°C) during the PQR test.

In other words, it permits reducing the listed preheat temperature on the WPS by up to 100°F (55°C) during the PQR test.

In the given scenario, the WPS lists a minimum preheat temperature of 120°C. During the PQR test, the preheat temperature was reduced to 110°C, which is a decrease of 10°C. This decrease is within the 100°F (55°C) limit allowed by QW 406.1.

Since all other PQR tests passed, and the preheat temperature decrease was within the allowed limit, the qualified WPS preheat temperature would be 120°C.)

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Q26. In GTAW, what category of variable is the removal or inclusion of filler metal in a Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. Essential Variable
2. Non-Essential Variable
3. Supplementary Essential Variable
4. Impact Variable

Answer: 1. Essential Variable

(Explanation: As per table QW-256, Paragraph QW-404.14: The deletion or addition of filler metal is an essential variable)

Q27. For SMAW, What type of variable is a change in F number from a WPS as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. Essential Variable
2. Non-Essential Variable
3. Supplementary Essential Variable
4. Impact Variable

Answer: 1. Essential Variable

(Explanation: As per table QW-253, Paragraph QW-404.4: A change from one F-number to any other F-Number is an essential variable)

Q28. What is the P-number of SA516 Gr.60?

1. P-number 2B
2. P-number 1A
3. P-number 4
4. P-number 1

Answer: 4. P-number 1

(Explanation: Refer Table QW/QB – 422: Both P-number and Group number of SA 516 Gr. 60 is 1 )

Q29. What is the F-number of E6013?

1. F-number 1
2. F-number 1A
3. F-number 2
4. F-number 4

Answer: 3. F-number 2

(Explanation: Refer Table QW – 432: The F-number of E6013 is 2 )

Q30. What is the ‘A’ number when welding P No. 1 carbon steel to P No. 1 carbon steel using E7018 filler metal (SFA 5.1 classification)?

1. A-number 5
2. A-number 2
3. A-number 4
4. A-number 1

Answer: 4. A-number 1

(Explanation: Since, both P1 and F4 are carbon steel (mild steel), the resultant weld metal will also be mild steel. Now Refer Table QW – 442: The A-number for mild steel is 1, hence, option 4 i.e. A-number – 1 is the correct answer)

Q31. A welder is qualified with E7018 (without backing), can he weld with E6013 as per ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. Yes but with backing only
2. Yes, either with or without backing
3. No
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Yes but with backing only

(Explanation:  Step 1: Identify the F-numbers:

• Refer to Table QW-432 to find the F-numbers for E7018 and E6013.
• E7018 has an F-number of 4, and E6013 has an F-number of 2.

Step 2: Qualification Requirements: (www.weldingandndt.com)

• To determine if the welder is qualified to use E6013, refer to Article QW-433 (Alternate F-Numbers for Welder Performance Qualification).
• Article QW-433 Guidelines: According to QW-433, a welder qualified with an F-number 4 electrode (such as E7018) without backing is qualified to weld with an F-number 2 electrode (such as E6013) only with backing.

Additional Note: ASME Section IX specifies that a double “V” groove is also considered as welding with backing.

Therefore, a welder qualified with E7018 without backing can weld with E6013, but only if backing is used.)

Q32: Which welding position requires the test piece to be held at a 45-degree angle?

1. 2G
2. 2F
3. 3G
4. 3F
5. 1F

Answer: 5. 1F

(Explanation: According to QW-132.1, the 1F welding position involves a pipe positioned at a 45-degree angle to the horizontal, which is rotated during welding so that the weld metal is applied from above. At the point of deposition, the weld axis is horizontal and the throat is vertical. To learn more about welding test positions and see the photograph of the welding test positions, please visit: https://www.weldingandndt.com/welding-positions/)

Q33. What is the minimum diameter a welder qualifies for when tested on a NPS 2 pipe using GTAW according to ASME Section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. 0.5 inches (12.7 mm)
2. 0.75 inches (19.1 mm)
3. 1 inch (25 mm)
4. 1.5 inches (38.1 mm)

Answer:3. 1 inch (25 mm)

(Explanation: The welder has been tested on a NPS 2 pipe. For a  NPS 2 pipe, the outer diameter (OD) is 2.375 inches (60.3 mm). (To find out the OD and thickness of a pipe according to NPS, please refer to ASME B31.10)

According to ASME Section IX, Table QW-452.3, if a welder is tested on a pipe with an OD between 1 inch (25 mm) and 2.875 inches (73 mm), the minimum qualified diameter is 1 inch (25 mm). Therefore, the correct answer is 1 inch. (25 mm). A simplified for of Table 452.3 is given below.)

OD of Test Coupon	OD Qualified
	Min.	Max.
OD < 25 mm (1 in.)	Size Welded	Unlimited
25 mm ≤ OD ≤ 73 mm	25 mm	Unlimited
OD > 73 mm	73 mm	Unlimited

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Q34. If a welder is qualified on a NPS 4 pipe test coupon welded with SMAW, what is the qualified diameter (OD) range?(www.weldingandndt.com)

1. 73 mm to Unlimited
2. NPS 2-1/2 to Unlimited
3. DN 65 to Unlimited
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

(Explanation: The welder has been tested on a NPS 4 pipe. For a NPS 4 pipe, the outer diameter (OD) is 4.500 inches or 114.3 mm. (www.weldingandndt.com)

According to ASME Section IX, Table QW-452.3, if a welder is tested on a pipe with an OD greater than 73 mm ( 2-7/8 inches), the qualified diameter (OD) range is 73 mm (2-7/8 inches) to Unlimited. Note that 2-7/8 in. (73 mm) O.D. is the equivalent of NPS 2-1/2 (DN 65), as mentioned in the general notes of Table QW-452.3. Therefore, all the options are correct.

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Q35: What information should be documented in a Welder Performance Qualification (WPQ) test according to ASME Section IX?

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1. All essential and non-essential variables
2. All essential, non-essential, and supplementary essential variables (if required)
3. All parameters requested by the inspector during welding including the type of test and test results, and the ranges qualified
4. Essential variables, the type of test and test results, and the ranges qualified

Answer: 4. Essential variables, the type of test and test results, and the ranges qualified

(Explanation: Please refer QW-301.4 (Record of Tests): The Welder Performance Qualification (WPQ) test record must include the essential variables (refer to QW-350), the type of test conducted, the test results, and the qualified ranges as specified in QW-452 for each welder. Following formats can be used for the WPQ documentation (www.weldingandndt.com);

Form QW-484A for Welder Performance Qualifications & Form QW-484A for Welding Operator Performance Qualifications)

Q36. When a welder needs to be certified through radiographic examination, what is the minimum length required for the test coupon used in the qualification process as per ASME section IX? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. 4 inches (100 mm)
2. 6 inches (150 mm)
3. 8 inches (200 mm)
4. 12 inches (300 mm)

Answer: 2. 6 inches (150 mm)

(Explanation: As per QW-302.2 of ASME Section IX, When a welder is required to be qualified by radiographic examination, the minimum length of the test coupon must be 6 inches (150 mm. (www.weldingandndt.com) This length must encompass the entire circumference of the weld for pipes. In cases where the diameter of the pipe is small, multiple test coupons may be used, but the total number should not exceed four consecutively made test coupons. The examination technique and acceptance criteria shall be in accordance with QW-191.)

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Q37. A Procedure Qualification test conducted using a groove weld on a plate that is 2 inches (50 mm) thick (welding process: SAW), the welder filled the entire groove with allowable reinforcement. what is the qualified WPS thickness range as per ASME Sec IX?

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1. 5 mm to 100 mm (3/16 inch to 4 inches)
2. 10 mm to 50 mm (3/8 inch to 2 inches)
3. 50 mm to 100 mm (2 inches to 4 inches)
4. 5 mm to 200 mm (3/16 inch to 8 inches)

Answer: 4. 5 mm to 200 mm (3/16 inch to 8 inches)

(Explanation: According to QW-451.1 in ASME Section IX, the thickness range that can be qualified for a Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) is from 5 mm to 200 mm, which is equivalent to 3/16 inch to 8 inches. (www.weldingandndt.com)

Important Note: Please check Note 3 located below the table QW-451.1 in the standard. This note states that this thickness range is only applicable for Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW), Submerged Arc Welding (SAW), Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (GTAW), and Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW). Since the welding process mentioned in our question is Submerged Arc Welding (SAW), we can use this thickness range for our qualifications.)

Q38. As per ASME Section IX, what is the maximum size of a fillet weld that can be performed using a Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) qualified on a fillet joint with a base metal thickness (T) of 3/8 inch?

1. 1.1T
2. All fillet sizes
3. 2T
4. 1.1 T

Answer: 2. All fillet sizes

(Explanation: As per Table QW-451.3, any size of fillet weld can be applied to all base metal thicknesses and diameters, provided that a Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) is qualified on a fillet joint in accordance with Figure QW-462.4(a).

Q39. What does the ’70’ refer to in a E7018 electrode?

1. Tensile strength: 70 ksi (minimum)
2. Yield strength: 70 ksi (minimum)
3. Tensile strength 70 Mpa (minimum)
4. Tensile strength: 70 ksi (maximum)

Answer: 1. Tensile strength: 70 ksi (minimum)

(Explanation: The “70” in a SMAW electrode refers to the minimum tensile strength of the deposited weld metal. This is expressed in ksi (thousand pounds per square inch). Thus, the correct interpretation of the ’70’ in E7018 is that it refers to the minimum tensile strength of 70 ksi. This can be found in ASME section II Part C)

Q40. What is the minimum distance from the surface to be examined that must be cleaned before conducting a magnetic particle test, as per ASME Section V?

1. 0.5 inches (12.5 mm)
2. 1 inch (25 mm)
3. 2 inches (50 mm)
4. 3 inches (75 mm)

Answer: 2. 1 inch or 25 mm

(Explanation: According to ASME Section V, Article 7, T-741.1 (b), before conducting a magnetic particle inspection, The surface and all adjacent areas within at least 1 inch (25 mm) must be free from various contaminants. These include dirt, grease, lint, scale, welding flux, spatter, oil, and any other extraneous materials that could interfere with the examination process.)

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Q41. An elongated slag of 5 mm is observed on a long seam weld joint of a pressure vessel with a plate thickness of 12 mm. According to ASME Section VIII Division 1, can this be accepted? (www.weldingandndt.com)

1. Yes, because the slag is less than 6 mm
2. Slag is not acceptable on a long seam joint
3. Yes because slag is a non critical defect
4. No, because the slag exceeds 4 mm

Answer: 1. Yes, because the slag inclusion is less than 6 mm

Explanation: According to ASME Section VIII Division 1, for a plate thickness upto 19 mm, any elongated indication (such as slag) is considered unacceptable if its length exceeds 6 mm. Since the observed slag inclusion is 5 mm, it falls within the acceptable limit and can be accepted under this construction code. To learn more about the acceptance criteria, please click here)

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Q42. What is a “defect” in welding?

1. A minor flaw that can be accepted from the application point of view
2. A discontinuity that meets acceptance criteria
3. A discontinuity that doesn’t meet the acceptance criteria
4. An imperfection that passes inspection

Answer: 3. A discontinuity that doesn’t meet the acceptance criteria

(Explanation: A “defect” is specifically defined as a discontinuity or a series of discontinuities that make a part or product unable to meet the minimum applicable acceptance standards or specifications. This means that the presence of such defects renders the part or product unacceptable for use, leading to its rejection.)

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Q43. What is the primary difference between Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC) from a mechanical engineering perspective?

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1. QA focuses on inspecting finished products after they are made, while QC involves creating quality standards.
2. QA is about establishing processes and procedures to prevent defects, while QC is about detecting and correcting defects through inspection and testing.
3. QA is concerned with the final product only, whereas QC deals with the entire manufacturing process.
4. QA and QC are the same and can be used interchangeably in all contexts.

Answer: 2. QA is about establishing processes and procedures to prevent defects, while QC is about detecting and correcting defects through inspection and testing.

(Explanation: Quality Assurance (QA) is about ensuring that the processes used to create products are effective and efficient, focusing on planning and systematic activities to prevent defects before they occur. In contrast, Quality Control (QC) involves the inspection and testing of products to identify and fix defects after they have occurred. Simply put, QA is proactive and process-oriented, while QC is reactive and product-oriented.)

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Q44. What is the main advantage of using pre-fabricated components in construction?

1. Reduced material costs
2. Improved on-site safety and faster construction times
3. Enhanced aesthetic appearance
4. Increased need for skilled labour

Correct Answer: 2. Improved on-site safety and faster construction times.

(Explanation: The primary advantage of using pre-fabricated components in construction is that they are manufactured off-site (fabrication shops) in controlled environments, which allows for quicker assembly on-site. This significantly reduces construction times, enabling projects to be completed more efficiently. Additionally, having fewer workers on-site at any given time improves safety by minimizing the risk of accidents. The controlled factory setting also enhances quality control, leading to fewer mistakes and less rework. While reduced material costs and aesthetic improvements can be benefits of prefabrication, the most significant advantages are related to safety and speed of construction.)

Q45. What are the key differences between hydraulic and pneumatic systems?

1. Hydraulic systems use liquids, while pneumatic systems use gases
2. Hydraulic systems are generally faster than pneumatic systems
3. Pneumatic systems can handle higher pressures than hydraulic systems
4. Both systems operate on the same principles and components

(Explanation: The primary difference between hydraulic and pneumatic systems is the medium they use: hydraulic systems utilize liquids (usually oil) to transmit power, while pneumatic systems use compressed gases (typically air). This fundamental distinction affects their applications, pressure capabilities, and overall performance. Hydraulic systems are often used for heavy lifting and precise control, while pneumatic systems are preferred for lighter tasks and faster operation.)

Q46. How does a heat exchanger work?

1. It converts electrical energy into thermal energy
2. It transfers heat from one fluid to another without mixing them
3. It cools fluids by exposing them to ambient air
4. It generates heat through chemical reactions

(Explanation: A heat exchanger is a device that transfers heat between two or more fluids without allowing them to mix. It works on the principle of heat transfer through conduction, convection, or radiation. Common types include shell-and-tube, plate, double pipe, finned tube, and air-cooled exchangers. Shell-and-tube exchangers consist of a shell with tubes inside, allowing fluids to flow through the tubes and shell, facilitating efficient heat transfer. Plate exchangers use stacked plates with thin surfaces to transfer heat between fluids. These devices are crucial in heating, cooling, and energy recovery applications across industries like HVAC, power generation, and chemical processing.)

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